Various Keynesian and Monetarists stimulus programs have been tried and 
failed since 2008 and the response of their  advocates to their failure 
 is always "the level of stimulus didn't go far enough -  lets have more
 please".
What the advocates of these forms of stimulus have in 
common is a belief that the recession is somehow caused by nominal 
factors (not enough money) or confidence factors (future expectations 
too low) rather than real factors.   This seems inconsistent with the 
facts.   There was a large drop in RGDP in 2008 accompanied by a fall in
 NGDP and levels of employment.  Since then  NGDP has risen more or less
 in line with its  long-term trends while employment has increased much 
more slowly.  If this was nominal wouldn't we have expected a more 
significant recovery in employment as NGDP has increased substantially 
since 2008 ?
To my mind this looks like something real happened 
in 2008 from which we have not yet recovered - perhaps there was a 
realization (doesn't really matter what it was for the purposes this 
post)  that year that something fundamental had changed that would 
render a proportion of investment unprofitable ?   
What would we have expected to see happen if this was the case.
-
 A sudden drop in RGDP and employment  as these unprofitable  lines of 
business were terminated accompanied by a fall in NGDP as effective 
demand is reduced
- A reduced demand for labor that if not resulting in lower real wages would result in higher long-term unemployment
-
 If effective demand has fallen but wages have not then there will be 
less profitable investment opportunities.   This will increase savings 
and reduce borrowing and lead to a fall in IR potentially to zero and a 
"liquidity trap"  that will again cause NGDP to fall.
This chain of 
events is consistent  with  what has happened.   What then  will be the 
effect of an attempt of the monetary authorities to set expectations 
that NGDP will increase at a higher rate in the future?   It will depend
 upon how businesses expect this increased money supply to affect 
relative prices - in particular the  wage level  relative to the price 
of final goods.   In the best case scenario then this will cause real 
wages to fall and allow investment to increase.  Even here though the 
effect will be via inflation which will affect different goods 
differently and disrupt the price mechanism.     Based on the experience
 since 2008 though the increased money supply will cause real wages to 
rise almost  as much as final goods.    We will get  higher inflation 
and only a marginal effect on employment.    This is stagflation and 
will quickly wipe out any beneficial effects of the marginal lower real 
wages.
 
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